MCQ Madhya Pradesh 2018

MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE
Preliminary Exam 2018 (Shift - II)

1. Which of the following writs can be issued against private individual as well
as public authority?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Mandamus

Select the correct answer given above

(A) I only (B) 2 only

2. The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children at the age of six to fourteen years enshrined in Article?

(a) Art 21 (b) Art 21-A

3. In which of the following amendments of the Constitution made in mandatory for the President to accept the advice given by Council of Ministers-
(a) 39 Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment

4. An ordinance can be issued by the President at any time when

(a) The Parliament in Session (b) Lok Sabha is not in Session

5. Article of Constitution of India relate to Uniform Civil Code for citizens:-

(a) Article 45 (b) Article 44

6. Decision of Supreme Court relating to ban on smoking at public places is

(a) Murali S. Deora v. Union of India (b) Food Corporation India v. Bharatiya Khadya Nigam Karmachari Sangh
(c) Javed v. State of Haryana (d) S.R.Chaudhuri v. State of Punjab

7. Where a law is made by a state legislature on the subject enumerated in the concurrent list, with the assent of the President repugnant to the earlier law made by parliament, then the law so made by the State-
(a) Shall prevail in the state (b) Shall not prevail in the state
(c) Shall prevail with the permission of Supreme Court (d) Shall prevail with the permission of High Court

8. According to the Constitution of India the term “District Judge shall not include-
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate (b) Session Judge
(c) Chief Judicial Magistrate (d) Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court

9. Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children in any factory or more or in any hazardous employment below the age of
(a) Eighteen years (b) Twelve years
(c) Fourteen years (d) Sixteen years

10. The power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment etc, under Article 72 of Constitution is exercised by the President
of India-
(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister (b) On his own as Head of the Union
(c) On the advice of the Council of minister (d) On the advice of the law Minister

11.Remedies available against an ex-parte decree include-

(a) Appeal (b) Review

12.A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of?

(a) 30 days (b) 60 days

13. A receiver is an

(a) Officer of the Court (b) Agent of the plaintiff

14.Right to appeal is-

(a) Fundamental Right (b) Constitutional Right

15. Under Civil Procedure Code, defendant can ask for temporary injunction against the plaintiff if-

(a) There appears to be a danger would waste or alienate the suit property

(b) The plaintiff threatens to dispose off the property with a view to defrauding his creditors

(d) All of these

16.Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed-
(a) Appeal can be filed against the order (b) No appeal lies
(c) With the permission of Court appeal can be filed against the order (d) None of these

17.Amendment in pleadings relates to-

(a) Order 6. Rule 15 C.P.C (b) Order 6. Rule 17 C.P.C

18.In normal course how many adjournment can be granted by Trial Court on sufficient cause?
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) No limitation

19.A suit may be instituted by a minor?
(a) In his name (b) In his name by next friend
(c) Guardian of minor in his own name (d) Relative of minor in his name

20. Before filling a suit against government under Section 80 of Civil Procedure Code it requires a notice to be given to the government of-
(a) 30 days (b) 90 days
(c) 14 days (d) 60 days

21.If the appellant withdraws the appeal preferred against a decree passed ex parte, the application under Order 9. Rule 13 of Civil Procedure Code shall be-
(a) Returned (b) Maintainable
(c) Referred for opinion of the Appellate Court (d) Rejected

22. The Court cannot order execution of a decree as per Section 51 of Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following ways?
(a) By attachment and sale of property
(b) A decree for restitution of conjugal rights, by sending the person husband or wife as the case may be to civil prison
(c) By appointing a receiver

(d) By delivery of any property specifically decreed

23.Procedure for Suits relating to matters concerning the family is given-

(a) Order 32-A C.PC (b) Order 29 C.PC

24.Under Order 32 Rule 1 of Civil Procedure Code a minor means a person who has not attained his majority within the meaning of…….

(a) Juvenile Justice Act (b) Civil Procedure Code

25.Pleading means

(a) Plaint or rejoinder (b) Plaint or written statement

26. Which of the following is a ground for determination of a lease by forfeiture

(a) On expire of lease period (b) On breach of express conditions

27. The doctrine of part performance is dealt in

(a) Sec 52 of TP Act (b) Sec 53 of TP Act

28.Doctrine of lis pendens embodied in Sec.52 Transfer of Property Act

(a) Invalidate the transfer of immovable property during pending of the suit

(b) in only enacts that the purchaser pendent lite suit is bound by the result of the litigation

(d) it protect the right of collusive transferee

29.Under Transfer of Property Act if A transfer house worth Rs. 2000/- to B and B transfers a field worth Rs 1200/- and in additional pay Rs. 800/- in cash to A the transfer is:-

(a) Exchange (b) Sale

30.In case of gift if the donee dies before acceptance then

(a) Gift is void (b) Gift is valid

31.Which of the following properties cannot be transferred

(a) Interest in mortgaged property (b) Right to future maintenance

32.Within the meaning of Section 51 of the Transfer of Property Act 1882 the transferee

(a) Is not entitled to value of improvements (b) Is entitled to value of improvements

33. A contract of insurance, the performance of which depends upon a future event falls under the category of

(a) Contingent contract (b) Contract of indemnity

34. An agreement to remain unmarried is

(a) Valid (b) Void

35. A contract of insurance is a contract of

(a) Guarantee (b) Bailment

36. A tradesman leaves goods at B house by mistake B treats the goods as his own, he is bound to pay A for them

(a) Under Section 69 of Indian Contract Act (b) Under Section 70 of Indian Contract Act

37.In a contract in which time is not essence of the contract the failure to perform the contract before specified time

(a) Contract will become void

(b) The promise is entitled to compensation from the promisor for any loss occasioned to him by such failure

(d) Contract will become voidable at the option of the promise

38. In which one of the following consideration is not required

(a) Contract of bailment (b) Contract of guarantee

39. A agree with B to discover treasure by magic under Indian Contract Act the agreement is

(a) Void (b) Illegal

40. A and B make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debt is barred by the Indian law of limitation?

(a) The contract is voidable (b) The contract is not voidable

41.In specific Relief Act all other words and expressions used but not defined then their definition and meaning would be the same which has been defined under

(a) Transfer of property act 1882 (b) Civil Procedure Code 1908

42.Specific Relief Act what is true in respect of mandatory injunction

(a) Compels the performance of certain positive acts (b) is awarded where the temporary injunction is meaningless

43.Specific performance of contract may be ordered where

(a) There exists no standard for ascertaining actual damage by non performance of the act to be done

(b) Compensation is adequate relief

(d) The contract by its nature determinable

44.The specific performance of a contract may be obtained by

(a) Any party thereto (b) The representative in interest of any party thereto

45. Under section 6 of Specific Relief Act a suit for recovery of possession of Immovable property may be brought within… from the date of dispossession

(a) 6 months (b) 3 months

51. Where an order for the eviction of a tenant is made under Section 12 on the ground specified in clause (e) sub- section (1) the tenant is entitled to
amount by way of compensation from landlord?

(a) Double the amount of the annual standard rent of the accommodation (b) Amount of the annual standard rent

52. Essential supply enjoyed by a tenant in respect of the accommodation let to him is cut off by landlord who will make an order to restore such supply

(a) Collector (b) Civil court

53. For a construction which has materially altered the accommodation to the different of the landlord interest or is likely to diminish its value substantially by the tenant

(a) Oral permission from landlord is sufficient (b) Written permission of landlord is necessary

54.The provisions of MP Accommodation Control Act applies to

(a) Only municipal corporation area (b) Only municipal corporation and Nagar Palika area

55. Tenant may be evicted on the ground of bona fide need of landlord for residential purpose but the need does not extend to
(a) His son need (b) Need of the other family members Need of any person for whose
(c) accommodation is held benefit (d) Need of any other tenant paying more rent

56.Under M.P. Land Revenue Code does the khasra entries confer title
(a) Yes name of bhumi swami is entered in it (b) No entry in revenue record is only for the purpose of land revenue
(c) Yes it creates substantive right (d) Yes entries shall be presumed to be correct

57.Whether a non tribal acquires bhumi swami right of revenue land by will executed in his favor by aboriginal tribe?
(a) No permission of collector is required before execution of will (b) Yes permission of collector is require

(c) Yes being a bhumi swami of revenue land rights of aboriginal tribal are absolute (d) Yes acquiring of bhum swami rights by will is not transfer

58. Under MP Land Revenue Code agriculture years means the years commencing on the first day of

(a) January (b) April

59. On whom order, government lessee may be ejected from his land?

(a) State government (b) Civil court

60.Section of M.P. Land Revenue Code 1959 relates to rights private easement

(a) 131 (b) 129

61.Opinion of an expert is

(a) Supportive and corroborative in nature (b) Relevant but unsafe

62.As the trial proceeds burden of proof under Section 101 of Indian Evidence Act

(a) Goes on shifting (b) May shift

63. Who amongst the following are competent witness?

(a) Chance witness (b) Victim of rape

64.Evidence given by a dumb witness in the court by writing or signs shall be deemed to be

(a) Documentary evidence (b) Oral evidence

65.A statement recorded by investigation officer U/S 161 Cr.P.C. can be used

(a) For contradiction (b) For corroboration

66. Presumption as to electronic records and electronic signature

(a) Section 85-B of Evidence Act (b) Section 85-C of Evidence Act

67.A disputed handwriting can be proved

(a) By examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

(b) By comparison of the court the disputed signature with some admitted signature

(d) All of these

68.In case related to the abetment of suicide by a women the provision of presumption is available in section of evidence act

(a) 114 (b) 113-A

69.A and B were jointly tried for the murder of C during the trial A said B and I murdered C, what is the nature of this evidence against B

(a) Substantive evidence (b) Corroborative evidence

70. A dying declaration under Sec. 32 of the Indian evidence act is admissible in evidence

(a) Only when it is reduced in writing (b) Even when it is made to a police officer

71. A is charged with travelling on a railway without a ticket under the Indian evidence act the burden of proving that he had a ticket is on

(a) Prosecution (b) Accused

72. Under Indian Evidence Act 1872 evidence of hostile witness

(a) Cannot be taken into consideration for any purpose (b) It cannot be relied on by the any purpose

73. Under Indian Evidence Act 1872 the rule of res gestae is applicable in

(a) Civil cases only (b) Criminal cases only

74.The opinion of examiner of electronic evidence is a relevant fact under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act

(a) 45A (b) 47A

75.Under Indian Evidence Act the evidence given by dog squad is

(a) Not admissible (b) Not admissible because dependent on the canine inference

76.Indian Penal Code K M Nanavati v. State of Maharashtra is a leading case on

(a) Exercise of legal powers (b) Grave and sudden provocation

77.Police officer arrested and detained a person in lock up despite production of a bail order from court Police officer

(a) Wrongful restrain (b) Wrongful confinement

78. A beat his wife she fell down and becomes unconscious believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder A handed her in fan with rope. Post mortem disclosed her death from hanging A is liable for

(a) Murder (b) Causing death by negligence

79.Robbery is dacoity if committed conjointly by

(a) More than two persons but less than five persons (b) Five or more than five persons

80.In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine

(a) Has to be simple (b) Has to be rigorous

81.A and B corporation officers legally demolished the illegal constructed structure of C and removed the material for safe custody which offence is
committed by A and B

(a) Criminal breach of trust (b) Dishonest misasspriation of property

82. Punishment for trafficking of person is

(a) Section 366-A of IPC (b) Section 368-A of IPC

83.Section 354-D Indian Penal Code is related to

(a) Voyeurism (b) Touching of woman with sexual intent

84. Which is not the essential ingredient of offence of dowry death

(a) Cruelty or harassment towards woman by her husband or any relative of her husband in for or in connection or with any demand of dowry

(b) Cruelty must be soon before her death

(d) Death of woman with in seven years of her marriage

85. Recently Supreme Court has interpreted the exception 2 to S 375 of IPC as sexual intercourse or sexual acts by a man with his own wife the wife not below 18 years is not rape the case is

(a) Independent through v. Union of India (b) Youth advocate Association v. Union of India

86.A find the key of Z house door which Z had lost and enter Z house having open the door with that key A is guilty of

(a) Theft (b) Cheating

87.A without any excuse fires a loaded cannon into a crowd of persons and kills one of them although he may not have had a premeditated design to kill any particular individual. A committed

(a) S 299 IPC (b) S 300 IPC

88.To constitute an offence of criminal conspiracy under Indian Penal Code what is the necessary condition to be proved?

(a) There must be a prior meeting of two or more persons

(b) There must be an agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal act or to do a legal act by illegal means

(d) Two or more persons commit a crime on a sudden provocation with guilty mind

89. Which section of IPC is based on the maxim de minimis non curat lex the law takes no account of trifiles

(a) Section 91 (b) Section 92

90. According to Indian Penal Code taking property dishonestly from the dead body

(a) Does not amount any offence (b) Amount to the offence of theft

91.When the trial relates to an offence u/s 376 of the IPC the trial shall as far as possible completed within a period of

(a) 6 months (b) 1 years

92.Direction to the police to investigate u/ Sec. 202 of Criminal Procedure Code

(a) Can not be given without examining the complainant on oath

(b) Can be given without examining the complainant on oath

(d) Cannot given in any circumstances

93.Under Section 209 Criminal Procedure Code which of the following cases can be committed to the court of sessions by a magistrate it is appears to the magistrate that offence is triable exclusively by the court of sessions?

(a) A case instituted on police report (b) A case instituted otherwise on a police report

94. Which of the following statements is wrong

(a) When a complaint is dismissed the court shall record the reasons

(b) When an accused is discharged the court need not record the reasons

(d) When cognizance is taken of an offence the court need not recorded the reasons

95.Under C.r.P.C. the period of limitation shall commence

(a) On the date of taking cognizance (b) On the date of commission of offence

96.Under Section 125 Cr.P.C. a Magistrate of the first class can order a person to make a monthly allowance for the maintenance of his

(a) Married daughter who has attained majority (b) Brother

97.An accused person pleads guilty and has been convicted on such plea by Chief Judicial Magistrate and a sentence of imprisonment of four years is
passed against him

(a) An appeal shall lie to the high court only to the extent of legality of the sentence

(b) An appeal shall lie to the court of sessions only to the extent of legality of the sentence

(d) None of these

98.In which one of the following sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, provision for free legal aid is made?

(a) Section 301 (b) Section304

99.An accused can make an application for plea bargaining if and when he is alleged to have committed the offence

(a) Affecting socio economic condition of the country (b) Theft

100. Section 311-A of Criminal Procedure Code empowers magistrate

(a) To proceed against other person appearing guilty of offence

(b) To record confession of accused during trial

(d) To visit and inspect any place in which an offences is alleged to have been committed

101.All hospitals public or private shall provide the first aid and medical treatment free of cost to the victims of offence of acid attack and rape

(a) Under section 357-B of Cr.P.C. (b) Under section 357-C of Cr.P.C.

102. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under section 125 of Criminal Procedure Code

(a) Wife living in adultery (b) Major married daughter who can not maintain herself

103. When can a trial court release an accused on bail under section 389(3) of Cr.P.C. after conviction

(a) Where accused is on ball and imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years

(b) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 5 years

(d) Where accused is on bail and imprisonment is not exceeding 2 years

104. Who can withdraw a case from the prosecution under Section 321 Cr.P.C.

(a) The State Government (b) Public prosecutor in charge of a case with the permission of court

105.Under Section 357-A (2) of Criminal Procedure Code which of the authority is authorized to decided quantum of compensation

(a) Sessions judge (b) Legal service authority

106. I Promise to pay ‘B’ Rs. 5000 and all other sums which shall be due to him this is a

(a) Promissory note (b) Bill of exchange

107. Under section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act complaint may be made within from cause of action arises

(a) 15 days (b) One month

108.Offence under Negotiable Instruments Act are compoundable

(a) Under section 145 NI Act (b) Under section 147 NI Act

109.In a prosecution under Section 138 of Negotiable Act, 1881, it shall not be
a defence that-

(a) The cheque does not bear his signature

(b) That the cheque was not issued for the discharged of any debt or other liability

(c) That the cheque has not been presented to the bank within period of six month from the date on which it is drawn or from the period of its validity which ever is earlier

(d) That the drawer had no reason to believe when he issued the cheque that the
cheque may be dishonored on presentment

110.Offences under the Negotiable Instrument Act are triable by-
(a) Sessions judge (b) Judicial magistrate first class

111.The nodal agency for swachh bharat mission gramin is

(a) Ministry of environment (b) Ministry of rural development
(c) Ministry of drinking water and sanitation (d) Ministry of panchayat raj

112.Tropic of cancer does not pass through which among the following district
of Madhya Pradesh
(a) Vidisha (b) Raj garh
(c) Sagar (d) Shivpuri

113.India should be given dominion status was proposed in
(a) Cripps mission (b) Cabinet mission plan
(c) The Moun batten plan (d) CR Plan

114. Calcutta High Court is the oldest High Court of India, when it was established

(a) 1774 (b) 1773

115.Hima Das the Indian sprinter belongs to which State

(a) West Bengal (b) Assam

116. The first Chief Justice of High Court of Madhya Pradesh

(a) Justice G P Singh (b) Justice PV Dixit

117. Veins carry blood

(a) Away from the heart (b) Towards the heart

118.Ramnath Kovind is President of India

(a) 12th (b) 13

119. Who won the men’s gold medal in 10 M Air Pistel event in the 2018 Asian games
(a) Bajrang Punia (b) Sourabh Choudhary
(c) Sanjeev Rajput (d) Abhishek Verma

120. Who was awarded year 2017 Dada Sahib Phalke award
(a) Hema Malini (b) Vinod Khanna pusthumous

121.Calorie is unit of

(a) Heat (b) Density

122. When is international yoga day celebrated

(a) 4th June (b) 21th June

123.Who is the current chief election commissioner of India

(a) VS Sampath (b) HS Brahma

124.On which date National Legal Service Day is observed in India?

(a) 26th November (b) 26th January

125. Who gave the slogan Do or Die?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Subhash Chandra Bose

126. Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise-

(a) Decibel (b) Hz

127. Which Literary personality is not associated with Madhya Pradesh

(a) Dharmvir Bharti (b) Sharad Joshi

128.Chromosomes are made up of?

(a) RNA and Lipids (b) DNA and Sugar

129. Where is the headquarter of West Central Railways Zone situated

(a) Jabalpur (b) Bhopal

130. Who propounded the theory of economics drain of India during British Imperialism?

(a) C.V.Raman (b) C.Rajgopalachari

131.A light sensitive device that converts drawing printed text into digital form is

(a) Keyboard (b) Printer

132.http stands for

(a) High text Transfer Protocol (b) Hyper Task Transfer Protocol

133. Which one works as an output and input device?

(a) Modem (b) Scanner

134.DVD is short form for-

(a) Digital Versatile Disk (b) Digital Volatile

135.Upon switching off the power the type of memory that readily loses data is classified as-

(a) Volatile Memory (b) Impact Storage

136.Debug in term denoting

(a) Error correction process (b) Writing of instruction in developing a new program

137……is the preferred file format for saving photographic image.

(a) Java (b) Jpeg

138.The software that allows you to read web pages and surf the internet is called a-

(a) Web Crawler (b) Search Software Engine

139. Word Processing Spread Sheet and Photo Editing are example of

(a) Application Software (b) System Software

140. Servers are computer that provide resources to other computers connected to a

(a) Mainframe (b) Super Computer

141. Prohibited by law or Treaty from being imported or exported

(a) Contraband (b) Smuggled

142.One who makes an official Examination of Accounts

(a) Clerk (b) Accountant
(c) Auditor (d) Boss

143.To hold a heavy heart means
(a) About to die (b) To be weighed down with sorrow
(c) Helping a sad person out (d) To be fed up with life

144……….. best expresses the meaning of the phrase “off and on”
(a) Repeatedly (b) Always
(c) Occasionally (d) Never

145……..best expresses the meaning of the phrase “ins and outs”

(a) Entrances and exits (b) Details and complexities

146………best expresses the meaning of the idiom “Take to one’s heels”

(a) To measure upto one’s standard (b) To shake in one’s shoes

147.Antonym of word “fake” is

(a) Genuine (b) FALSE

148.Word which best express the meaning of the “Nebulous”

(a) Vague (b) Tiny

149.I think I’ve got a cold, I can’t stop

(a) Sneeze (b) The sneezing

150.One who does not believe in God is called-

(a) Theist (b) Atheist

MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICEPreliminary Exam 2018 (Shift - II)

MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE
Preliminary Exam 2018 (Shift - II)