Madhya Pradesh Judicial Service

MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE

Preliminary Exam, 2021

1. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court D wider than the High Court.

(a) correct (b) Incorrect

2. The term “Justice” in Article 38 of the Indian Constitution is used to indicate:

(a) Social and Political Justice (b) Economic and Social Justice

3. According to the Constitution of India. any law made by the State which takes away or abridges the rights conferred by Part III shall be:

(a) voidable to the extent of the contravention (b) void to the extent of the contravention

4. Which Article of the Constitution of India Safeguards one’s right to marry with the person of one’s chance?

(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21

5. Which one of these is not a fundamental duty?

(a) To keep safeguard public proberty (b) To promote International peace
(c) To defend the nation (d) To protect natural environment

6. Which of the following statements is true in respect of right to property:

(a) right to property is a fundamental right (b) It is a constitutional right

(c) no such right is in existence. (d) none of these

7. Parliamentary of the house of Parliament and of the members and committee thereof includes:

(a) Freedom of speech in Parliament

(b) immunity from liability to any proceedings in any Court in respect of anything said, or any vote given by a member in Parliament and any committee

(c) immunity from lability in respect of the A. publication by or under the authority of E either House of Parliament of any report. paper, votes or proceedings

(d) all of these

8. According to Article 254 of the constitution of India, such portion of the State law as are repughant to a central law in the concurrent sphere. become invalid. The test of repugnancy was summarised in-

(a) M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India (1979) (b) Swadeshi Cotton Mills v. Union of India (1981)

9. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can thed transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declred null and void?

(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule

10. The Supreme Court of India exercises original jurisdiction in respect of any disputes of following nature:

(a) between the Government of India and one or more States

(b) between the Government of India and any States or States on one side and one or more other States on the other

(d) all of these

11. Where the decree is for the partition of an undivided estate assessed to the payment of revenue to the Government. the partition of the estate shall be-

(a) made by Collector (b) By Court which passed the decree

12. A files against B one suit on 6th January. 2020 and on the same grounds asking for same relief another On 18th February. 2020. Suit filed in February is decided by the court of competent jurisdiction on merits before the filed in January could be decided. Examine the validity of statement that suit filed on 6th January, 2020 is valid and res judicate will apply on the suit filed in February as it was filed late-

(a) The statement is true (b) The statement is false

(d) Validity of statement depends upon the discretionary power of Court

13. Which of the following statements is false:

(a) no woman can be arrested or detailed in the civil prison in execution of a decree except for the execution of a decree for the payment of money

(b) books of account, any right of personal service and a right to future maintenance shall not be attachment or sale in execution of a decree

(c) where a decree is to sent for execution to another Court, the Court which passed such decree shall send and decree directly to such other Court whether or not such Court is situated in the same State

(d) where the holder of a decree for the possession of immovable property or the purchaser of any property sold in execution of a decree is resisted of obstructed by any person obtaining possession of the property, he may make an application to the Court complaining of such resistance or obstruction

14. If the sole plaintiff dies after the hearing of the suit was concluded, the suit shall:

(a) abate (b) continue as it is

(d) continue only if an application has been submitted within limitation for adding the legal representatives as plaintiff

15. In a suit filed in representative capacity. the suit can be withdrawn, compromised and abandoned etc. by the plaintiff?

(1) without notice to all the persons interested (2) after notice to all the persons interested

(3) Neither (1) nor (2) (4) Neither (1) or (2) or (3)

18. What is the limitation to file application under order IX, Rule 7 of CPC»

(a) 30 Days (b) 60 Days

19. An application for the withdrawal of suit has been filed along with permission for grant of liberty to file fresh suit, in such an application Court
can

(a) allow the application without leave to file fresh suit (b) reject or allow the application in toto

20. Under Order XXI, Rule 37 before passing an order for the arrest or detention in the civil prison of judgment-debtor, Court

(1) shall issue show Sause notice instead of warrant for the arrest

(2) may issue warrant of arrest if is shown on affidavit that judgment debtor is about
to abscond

(3) shall issue attachment warrant before arrest warrant

(4) option (1) and (2) are correct.

21. Where injunction has been granted without giving notice to the opposite party the Court shall make an endeavour to finally dispose of the application within…..days from the date in which injunction was granted

(a) 30 (b) 45

22. Which among the following is not correct in relation to consideration of Order XXI, rule 90

(a) there must be a material irregularity or fraud in publishing or conducting of the sale (b) it must relate to conduct of sale alone

(c) the applicant must have sustained substantial injury (d) such injury must have been caused by material irregularity or fraud

23. A suit in representative capacity can be filed by virtue of

(a) Under Order I. Rule 8A of CPC (b) Under Order I, Rule 10A of CPC

24. Where a suit is abated of dismissed under XXII of CPC on the same cause of action

(a) New suit may be instituted with the consent of parties (b) Fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the Court

25. Which of the following statement is true:

(a) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure. the Courts shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is expressly barred

(b) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is impliedly barred

(c) according to section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the Court shall have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred

(d) none of these

26. Which of the following can be considered implied surrender of the lease?

(a) acceptance of a new issue taking effect during the continuance of the existing (b) abandonment of possession by the leese

27. The right of a third person for maintenance cannot be enforced under section 39 against Transferee who Is-

(a) gratuitous (b) for consideration without notice of the right

28. A lease of immovable property is not compulsorily registrable-

(a) Lease from year to year (b) Lease for a term of one year

29. The condition restraining absolute alienation is not void when it is-

(a) for the benefit of lessor (b) for the benefit of the legal heir of lessee

30. Where, without delivering possession of the mortgaged property. the mortgagor binds himself personally to pay the mortgage-money, and agrees that, in the event of his failing to pay according to his contract, the mortgagee shall have a right to cause the mortgaged property to be sold and the proceeds of sale to be applied in payment of the mortgage-money. the transaction is called:

(a) Simple mortgage (b) Usufructuary mortgage

31. What is not a condition precedent for creation of an interest in favor of unborn person

(1) prior interest should be created in the same transfer

(2) whole of the remaining interest of the transferor in the property should be for life

(3) prior interest should be for life

(4) prior interest should be created before transferring the remaining interest in favor of unborn person

32.According to provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the remaining interest in favor of unboun person

(a) Can be transferred

(b) Cannot be transferred

(d) Can be transferred apart from the dominant heritage

33. Where both parties are under mistake as to matter of the fact the agreement will be-

(a) Enforceable (b) Voidable

34. ‘A’ Guru (spiritual advisor) induced the Chala (his devotes) to gift him the whole of his property to secure benefit to his soul in the next world. The gift
shall be-

(a) Void (b) Voidable

35. Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing find amount to-
(a) One-forth of its value (b) Half of its value

36. “A- hires a carriage of “B° The carriage is unsafe though “B’ is not aware of it and “A’ is injured then what will be consequence of it?

(a) “B’ is not responsible to “A” for injury (b) “B’ is responsible to “A” for injury

37. Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor-

(a) Is voidable (b) Is illegal

38. If a promise accepts the anticipatory breach by promisor then

(a) the promise need not perform his part of contract but not entitled to claim damages from promisor

(b) the promise need not perform his part of contract only after the date of performance

(c) the promise need not perform his part of contract but entitled to claim damages from promissory without waiting till the date of performance

(d) the promise must perform his part of contract before claiming dames

39. A contract by which one party promises to save the other from loss caused to him by the conduct of the promisor himself, or by the conduct of any other person, is called:

(a) Contract of guarantee (b) Contract of surety

40. A promises to paint a picture for B up to December 31 and accepts an advance of Rs. 1,000. After making of the con-tract, A’s hands hands are
chopped off in an accident on December 25. B is entitled to the refund of Rs. 1,000 from A under which one of the following section:

(a) Section 73 (b) Section 64

41. When, due to fraud played by the parties, a contract in writing does not express the real Intention then appropriate remedy would be a suit for-

(a) Specific performance of contract (b) Declaration

(c) Rectification of instrument (d) Perpetual injunction
42. Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favor of a person who has obtained substituted performance of contract under section 20

(a) statement is incorrect (b) statement is correct
(c) can be performed according to discretion of Court (d) None of these

43. Section 30 lays down that the court on adjudging the rescission of a contract may require the party to whom such relief is granted:

(a) to restore, so far as may be, any benefit which he may have received from the other party and

(b) to make any compensation to him which justice may require

(d) None of these

44. ‘A’ while going abroad, leaves his furniture under the care of his friend ‘B* g’ pledges the furniture to C’. In a suit filed by ‘A’ under section 8 of Specific Relief Act, 1963-

(a) ‘C’ may be compelled specifically to deliver the furniture to ‘A’ (b) ‘C’ may not be compelled

45. Which of the following infrastructure project is not mentioned in Schedule to the Specific Relief Act

(a) Five star hotel located outside the city with population of more than 1 million

(b) Free star hotel located outside the city with population of more than 1 million

(d) Ropeways

46. Which of the following statement is false:

(a) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced

(b) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent, on ground of nuisance

(c) An injunction cannot be granted to prevent, on ground of nuisance, an act of which it is not reasonably clear that it will be a nuisance

(d) None of these

47. Negotiations for settlement taking place between a claimant and a person against whom claim is made

(a) bars the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation where the negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action by the claimant

(b) does not debar the defendant from pleading a statute of limitation even though the negotiations have led to delay in bringing the action by the claimant

(d) shall bar the defendant from pleading a statue of limitation absolutely

48. Under section 21, a suit is deemed to have been institute, in case of a new plaintiff impleaded/added

(a) on the date on which the new plaintiff is impleaded

(b) on the date of which the suit was initially instituted

(d) none of these

49. The jurisdiction to grant exemption under section 14 of limitation Act. 1963 is given exclusively to:

(a) Court of first Instance (b) High Court

50. In a suit filed by the plaintiff, the defendant in his written statement has taken the objection of non-impleament of necessary party. Despite such objection the plaintiff continued the suit and the suit finally was decreed. At the first appellate stage, the plaintiff withdraws the suit with liberty to file a fresh one on the same cause of action and subsequently filed a fresh suit, the period spent by the plaintiff in the earlier suit, under section 14 of Limitation Act is

(a) liable to be excluded on the ground that the plaintiff was prosecuting the earlier suit with due diligence and in good faith

(b) not liable to be excluded as the plaintiff cannot be said to be prosecuting the earlier suit who due diligence and in good faith

(d) to be excluded or not to be excluded is in the discretion of the Court

51. If a tenant makes deposit or payment as provided by section 13(1) or (2). no decree or order shall be made by the Court for the recovery of possession of accommodation on ground of-

(a) Section 12 (1) (a) (b) Section 12 (1) (b)

52. Where a landlord has acquired any accommodation by transfer, no suit for eviction under section 12 (1) (e) or (f) shall be maintainable till period is over-.

(a) 3 month (b) 6 months

53. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Married daughter is family member (b) Sub-Lease is not included in “Lease

54. Which of the following statements is false?

(a) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in any other law or contract. no suit shall be filed in any civil Court against the tenant for his eviction from any accommodation except on one or more of the grounds mentioned in section 12 (1) (a) to 12 (1) (p)

(b) Subject to any things to the contrary contained in any contract, no suit shall be filed in any civil Court against for his eviction from any accommodation except on one or more the grounds mentioned either in section 12 (1) (a) to 12 (1) (p) or in the contract to the contrary

(c) No tenant shall, without the previous consent in writing of the landlord, sublet the whole or any part of the accommodation held by him as a tenant

(4) According to section 23J of the Accommodation Control Act. 1961, “landlord means a landlord who is a retired servant of any Government, a retired servant of a company owned or controlled either by the Central servant of a company owned of controlled either by the Central or State Government, a widow or a divorced wife or physically handicapped person or a servant of any Government including a member of deffence services who according to his service conditions, is not entitled to Government accommodation on his posting to a place where he owns a house or is entitled to such accommodation only he owns a house or is entitled to such accommodation only on payment of a penal rent on his posting to such a place

55. M.P. Accommodation control Act, 1961 does not apply to-

(a) Property of Municipal Corporation used for residential purpose (b) Property of Municipal used exclusively for nonresidential purposes

56. In which of the following matters. Jurisdiction of the civil court is not excluded?

(a) Ejectment of Government Lessee (b) Restoration of possession of an occupancy tenant

57. Who among the following Is not a Revenue officer:

(a) Commissioner (b) Deputy Survey Officer

58. Where a partition proceeding is filed before Tehsildar and a question of title is raised in it, the Tehsildar:-

(a) shall proceed to partition the holding in accordance with the entries in the record of rights

(b) shall stay the proceedings for 3 months to facilitate the institution of a civil suit for determination of question of title

(d) shall dismiss the partition proceeding as partition is not possible until decision of title

59. A Bhumi swami may transfer an interest in his land:-

(a) by way of lease even if the period of lease does not exceed 5 years at a time

(b) by way of sale even if the individual buying it becomes entitled to an aggregated land exceeding ceiling limits

(d) exceeding 6 years

60. Choose the correct answer in relation to the following “A widow who is occupancy tenant can-“

(a) Sale the Property (b) Gift the property

61. As per Act a fact is said “not proved” when

(a) when it is proved incorrect (b) when court believes that it does not exist

62. Section 27 of the India Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to the rules enacted:

(a) Only in section 24 of the Indian Evidence Aet, 1872 (b) Only in section 25 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872

63. “Best evidence rule” is exclusively associated with the rule laid down in

(a) Section 62 of the Evidence Act (b) Section 90 of the Evidence Act

64. A witness who is unable to speak, gives his evidence in open court in the written form, it is a

(a) Documentary evidence (b) Oral evidence

65. Which section makes anything said. done or written by an accused to conspiracy, relevant as against Co” conspirators In reference to their common intention?
(a) Section 10 of the Indian Evidence Act.1872
(b) Section 6ofthe Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(c) Section 15 of the Indian Evidence Aet. 1872
(d) Section 14 of the Indian Evidence Act. 1872

66. Which of the following could be proved as dying declaration after the death of a person?

(a) FIR loded by the person (deceased)

(b) Statement of the person (deceased) to police, recorded under section 161. Cr PC

(d) All of these

67. Public documents are mentioned in-

(a) Section 72 of Evidence Act (b) Section 73 of Evidence Act

68. The general rule is that the opinion or belief of a witness is irrelevant. Certain exceptions to this rule have been laid down in Indian Evidence Aet. The sections containing these exceptions are:

(a) Section 52 to 55 (b) Section 10 to 15

69. Which one of the following is not a “Public Document”?

(a) A document forming the acts of a sovereign authority (b) A document forming the acts of official body

(c) A document forming the acts of officer of Government of Indian (d) A document forming the acts of an employee of an educational institution

70. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) A rule of law cannot be nullified by resorting to doctrine of estoppel

(2) Assurances held out but not incorporated in an agreement would not attract doctrine of estoppel

(3) Plea of promissory estoppel shall be a bailable even if an officer of the Government acts outside the scope of his authority

(4) An estoppel arises as soon as the relationship of landlord and tenant is created and tenant Is not permitted to deny the title of his landlord

71. “Test identification parade” under the law of evidence is:

(a) Substantive evidence (b) Corroborative evidence

72. The confession of an accused is only relevant against him. which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is an exception to this Rule?

(a) section 23 (b) Section 25

73. A retracted confession:

(a) Section 23 (b) Section 25

74. ‘Necesseity rule as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in:

(a) Section 31 of Evidence Act (b) Section 32 of Evidence Act

75. In a murder case before identification of the culprit. B wrote a letter of confession to the police officer. At the time of writing the letter there was no suspicion cast on B. Choose the most appropriate answer from the following choices.

(a) Is inadmissible as it was made to a police officer.

(b) Admissible as it was made voluntary. the fact it was made before the police officer is irrelevant.

(d) Inadmissible as it was not made before the Magistrate.

76. Preparation of which of the following offences is punishable

(i) Waging war against India (ii) Sedition

(iii) Murder (iv) Dacoity

(a) (i). (ii) and (iv)

(b) (i). (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i) and (iv)

77. A man who regularly visits the Instagram page of a bikini model women celebrity and also follows her commits the offence of:

(a) Stalking (b) voyeurism

79. A was beaten by B. In this act, A’s shoulder was dislocated (not fractured) B is liable for

(a) simple hurt (b) grievous hurt

80. A finds a ring belonging to B on a table in the house which B occupies. Here the ring is in possession of B and A in good faith believing that it belongs to him takes it. A commits the offence of

(a) theft (b) criminal misappropriation

81. A, residing in Calcutta, is against for Z, residing at Delhi. There is an express or implied contract between A and 2, that all sums remitted remits a lakh of rupees to A, with directions to A to invest the same in company’s paper. A in good faith, believing that it will be more for Z’s advantage to hold shares in the Bank of Bengal, disobeys Z’s directions, and buys shares in the Bank of Bengal, disobeys, Z’s directions, and buys shares in the bank of Bengal. for 2, instead of buying Company’s paper 2 suffers lose. A is liable for

(a) cheating (b) criminal breach of trust

83. A, a shopkeeper. to protect his own money says to B, who manages his business- “Sell nothing to Z unless he pavs you ready money, for I have no good opinion of his honesty.” A is

(a) liable for defamation under section 499 of IPC (b) liable for defamation under section 496 of IPC

84. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z that they will fire at 2 if Z attempts to leave the building. What offence has A committed?

(a) Wrongful confinement (b) Wrongful restraint

85. In which case, offence under section 377 was to be partially unconstitutional:

(a) Navel Singh Johar v. Union of India (b) Joseph Shine v. State of Punjab

86. A man who monitors the by a woman of internet, e-mail or any from of electronic communication, commits the offence of:

(a) Sexual harassment (b) criminal trespass

87. A and B, being, joint owners of elephant, A takes the elephant out of B’s possession, intending to use it. A then, sells the elephant and appropriates the whole proceeds to his own use. What offence has committed?

(a) Cheating (b) Thief

90. A instigates B to burn Z’s house B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of property there. then A Is guilty of which offence?

(a) Guilty of abetting theft (b) Guilty o abetting the burning of house and theft

91. In a case of warrant trial

(a) the Court in its first instance, will issue a warrant of arrest against the accused

(b) the police officer cannot arrest without warrant

(d) only those offences are included, which are punishable with death. imprisonment for life of a term exceeding two years

92. Under section 156 (3) of Cr. P.C., the power to direct investigation is vested
only in

(a) High Court (b) Sessions Judge

93. Magistrate can invoke power under section 156 (3). Cr. P.C. even at post cognizance stage. It is held in-

(a) Vinu bhai Hari bhai and others v. State of Gujarat and another (2019) (b) Alok Verma v. Union of India (2019)

94. If the acused though not of unsound mind, cannot be made to understand the proceedings. the Court
(1) will stay the proceedings (2) may proceed with the proceeding
(3) will forward the proceeding to the High Court (4) None of these

95. Constitution Bench of Supreme Court resolved the conflict of its earlier decision regarding criminal Court power in matter of adding additional accused in a criminal case, in-
(1) Hardeep Singh v. State of Punjab and others (2) Mohd. Shaff v. Mohd. Rafig
(3) Ranjit Singh v. State of Punjab (4) Hema Mishra v. State of Uttar Pradesh

96. A commits robbery on B. and in doing so voluntarily causes hurt to him Whether A may be separately charged with offences under sections 323, 392 and 394 of the IPC
(a) yes (b) no, only under section 394
(c) in all said offences only with the consent of accused (d) in all the said offences only upon application of prosecution

97. When can an offence otherwise compounded:

(a) When the person competent to compound is dead

(b) When the person competent to compound is under eighteen years of age

(d) When the accused is. by reason of a previous conviction. liable either to enhanced punishment or to a punishment of a different kind of such offence

98. New chapter of “plea bargaining” was added in the Criminal Procedure Code
by

(a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act. 2005 (b) Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act. 2005

99. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable properly is decided by:

(a) Judicial Magistrate (b) Executive Magistrate

100. A Magistrate dismisses a complaint after inquiry holding that identity of the accused is not disclosed in complaint order of the Magistrate is

(a) correct since it is mandatory to describe the identity of accused

(b) correct even if the identity is disclosed in the inequity it is not revealed from the
complaint

(d) incorrect since the proper course for the Magistrate was to reject the complaint

101. If, in a complaint case it is made to appear to Magistrate that an investigation by the police is in progress in relation to the same offence, which
of the following order (s) a Megistrate may pass under section 210 of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

(a) Return the complaint to be re-filed after police investigation

(b) stay the proceeding of inquiry or trial on such complaint

(d) Refer the complaint to Chief Judicial Magistrate

102. Victim means and includes:

(a) a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act of omission for which the accused person has been changed

(b) his or her guardian

(d) all of these

104. With regard to the place of inquiry or trial. which of the following statements is false:
(a) When it is uncertain in which of several local areas an offence was committed, it may be inquired into or trial by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(b) Where an offence is committed partly in one local area and partly in another. it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local
areas
(c) Where an offence is a continuing one, and continues to be committed in more local areas that one, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over any of such local areas
(d) Where it consists of several acts done in different local areas, it may be inquired into or tried by a Court having jurisdiction over the local area in which first of such acts was committed

105. Any private person may arrest any person who in his presence commits:
(a) Cognizable offence (b) Non-bailable offence
(c) Cognizable and non- bailable offence (d) Non-cognizable and non- bailable offence

106. ‘A’ signs the instrument in the following terms, state the instrument which cannot be considered as promissory note:

(a) I promise to pay B or order IN 500

(b) I acknowledge myself to be indebted to B for IN 1,000 to be paid on demand for value received

(d) I promise to pay B IN 500 seven days after my marriage with C

107. A Court trying an offence under section 138 may order the drawer of the cheque to pay interim compensation

(a) In summon case when drawer plead not guilty

(b) In other case after drawer’s statement under section 313, CrPC has been recorded

(d) All of these

108. Which of the following statements is false. If the person committing an deffense under section 138 of the Nego-liable Instruments Act is a company:

(a) every person who, at the time the offence was committed, was in charge of, and was responsible to the company for company. shall be deemed to be guilty

(b) Where a person is nominated as a Director of a company by virtue of his holding any office or employment in the Central or State Government, he shall not be liable for prosecution

(c) if it is proved that the offense has been committed with the consent or connivance of, or is attributable to, any neglect on the part of, any Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer of the company, such Director, Manager, Secretary or other officer shall also be deemed to be guilty

(d) none of these

109. When no rate of interest is specified in the instrument, interest on the amount due shall be calculated at the rate of-

(a) 6 percent (b) 9 percent

110. Amendment in section 148 of the Negotiable instruments Act, 1881 effective from 1st September, 2018 shall have a retrospective effect is held in
the case of-

(a) Surinder Singh Deswat v. Virender Gandhi (2019) (b) Indian Bank v. Promila (2020)

111. River “Narmada” flows in which of following direction:

(a) North to South (b) East to West

112. Which of the Water falls is situated in Madhya Pradesh:

(a) Dhua dhar (Bhedaghat) (b) Chachai

113. Lakshmi bai National Institute of Physical Education is established in:

(a) Indore (b) Bhopal

115. Which one is not ‘Rabi’ crop

(a) Wheat (b) Gram

116. the word famous rock-art site in India is situated at?

(a) Adamgarh (b) Gupteshwar

117. Boundary line drawn on map between India and China is known as
(a) Me Mohan Line (b) Red Cliff Line

118. Which of the following has won the Nobel peace prize 2020?

(a) World Deonomic Forum (b) World Food Programme

119. ‘Sputnik V’ which was in news recently is related to?

(a) a missile (b) a chatbot

MADHYA PRADESH JUDICIAL SERVICE

Preliminary Exam, 2021

ANSWERS