Uttarakhand Previous Year Papers


Time : 3:00 Hours 

Maximum Marks : 200

PART – 1 (General Knowledge)

1. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Irish Constitution ?

(a) Post of Prime Minister               (b) Fundamental Duties

(c) Fundamental Rights                  (d) Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Who was the first Education Minister of India ?

(a) Kalu Lal Shrimali                       (b) Humayun Kabir

(c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad     (d) M.C. Chhagla

3. Who was the first Chief Justice of India ?

(a) Justice M.C. Mahajan           (b) Justice H.J. Kania

(c) Justice B.K. Mukherjee         (d) Justice A.K. Sarkar

4. Who was the first Attorney General for India ?

(a) M.C. Seetalvad          (b) M.H. Kania

(c) Millan K. Banerjee     (d) K.K. Venugopal

5. The term ‘Embargo’ of International Law is of which origin ?

(a) Latin origin            (b) English origin

(c) Roman origin         (d) Spanish origin 

6. Who coined the term ‘International Law’ ?

(a) Oppenheim                           (b) J.L. Brierly

(c) Jeremy Bentham                   (d) B.L. Kapoor

7. Who was the first Speaker of Loksabha ?

(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                     (b) G.V. Mavalankar

(c) M.C. Seetalvad                             (d) Dr. Zakir Hussain

8. Which State government recently decided that no ‘Gorkha’ citizen will be prosecuted under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1955 ?

(a) Assam              (b) Manipur 

(c) Sikkim              (d) Nagaland

9. Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under the jurisdiction of which of the following High

Court ?

(a) Delhi High Court                    (b) Goa High Court

(c) Calcutta High Court               (d) Madras High Court

10. In which of the following case the ‘Public Trust’ doctrine was mentioned by the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Vishakha V State of Rajasthan                 (b) D.K. Basu V State of West Bengal

(c) Ram Kumar V State of Haryana               (d) M.C. Mehta V Kamal Nath

11. Which one of the following provision of the Constitution of India imposes duty on the state to preserve and protect the environment ?

(a) Article 50                            (b) Article 48A 

(c) Article 45                            (d) Article 40

12. By virtue of which of the following Article the Constitution may be called ‘The Constitution of India’ ?

(a) Article 393                      (b) Article 390 

(c) Article 280                      (d) Article 101

13. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by United National General Assembly on

(a) 10th December, 1947                   (b) 15th December, 1948

(c) 10th December, 1948                   (d) 20th December, 1947

14. World Trade Organization (WTO) was established on

(a) 10th January, 1994                         (b) 15th January, 1997

(c) 20th January, 1995                         (d) 1st January, 1995

15. The tenure of the judges of the International Court of Justice is

(a) 5 years                                     (b) 6 years  

(c) 10 years                                   (d) 9 years

16. UN Commission on ‘Human Rights’ was replaced by

(a) Human Rights Committee                                               (b) Human Rights Council

(c) International Human Rights Organization                       (d) None of the above

17. Where the headquarter of ‘International Commission of Jurists’ is located ?

(a) Geneva                                      (b) Rome  

(c) Paris                                           (d) London

18. Who was the first Law Minister of India ?

(a) Sardar Patel                               (b) K.M. Munshi

(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                      (d) None of these

19. Which specific Article of the Constitution of India makes the provision of the “General Clauses Act, 1897” applicable for interpretation of the Constitution ?

(a) Article 366                                     (b) Article 367 

(c) Article 363                                     (d) Article 372

20. Who said that ‘International Law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence’ ?

(a) Kelson                                            (b) Black-Stone 

(c) C. Wilfred Jenks                              (d) Holland

21. Which Union Territory was merged into the other in the year 2020 ?

(a) Daman and Diu with Dadar and Nagar Haveli                    (b) J & K with Leh

(c) Leh with Ladakh                                                                   (d) Puducherry with Dadar and Nagar Haveli

22. Which Union Territory has been added by the Act of 2019 ?

(a) Chandigarh                                                    (b) Delhi

(c) Jammu & Kashmir                                          (d) Puducherry

23. Which state of the following has High Court of its own ?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh                                         (b) Assam

(c) Goa                                                                 (d) Mizoram

24. Which is the biggest High Court in India ?

(a) Punjab & Haryana                                          (b) Uttarakhand

(c) Himachal Pradesh                                           (d) Allahabad

25. How many High Courts are in India ?

(a) 28                                                  (b) 29  

(c) 25                                                   (d) 27

26. The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act came into force in the year :

(a) 2014                                               (b) 2021 

(c) 2009                                                (d) 2013

27. Which of the Constitutional Amendment Act lowered the voting age of elections from 21 years to 18 years by amending Article 326 ?

(a) 41st Amendment                               (b) 61st Amendment

(c) 97th Amendment                               (d) 42nd Amendment

28. Who was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly ?

(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar                               (b) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru

(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad                             (d) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

29. The eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India provides for

(a) Election                                                 (b) Reorganization of J&K

(c) Panchayati Raj                                       (d) Languages

30. The headquarter of UNESCO is located in

(a) Hague                                                  (b) Paris 

(c) New York                                              (d) New Delhi

31. Total number of members of European Union are

(a) 28                                                         (b) 25 

(c) 27                                                          (d) 30

32. The Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 has received the assent of the President on

(a) 24th December, 2021                            (b) 25th November, 2021

(c) 24th July, 2021                                       (d) 25th December, 2021

33. Which of the following is a series of military tribunal held following World War II by the allied forces under International Law and Law of War ?

(a) Neuremberg Trials                                  (b) Tokyo Trials

(c) Eichmann Trial                                         (d) Peleus Trial

34. In which of the following cases, it was held that ‘right not to be deported’ is concomitant to Article 19 and available only to Indian Citizens ?

(a) B.K. Pavitra & others V Union of India                          (b) Joseph Shine V Union of India

(c) Mohammad Sali Mullah V Union of India                      (d) Shayara Bano V Union of India

35. Usha Rao Monari of India was appointed as Under Secretary General and Associate Administrator of which agency of United Nations in 2021 ?

(a) UNEP                                                                   (b) UNDP   

(c) UNICEF                                                                 (d) UNESCO

36. Who among the following represented India at International Court of Justice in the case of Kulbhushan Jadhav ?

(a) Advocate Soli Sorabjee                                        (b) Advocate Ashok Desai

(c) Advocate Siddharth Luthra                                  (d) Advocate Harish Salve

37. Which Section of the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021 defines the term “Commercial Surrogacy” ?

(a) Section 2(g)                                                         (b) Section 2(d)       

(c) Section 2(k)                                                          (d) Section 2(f)

38. In India total States and Union Territories are

(a) 29 States and 7 Union Territories                           (b) 28 States and 8 Union Territories

(c) 27 States and 7 Union Territories                            (d) 30 States and 8 Union Territories

39. The Highest Civilian Award, ‘Bharat Ratna’ was instituted in the year

(a) 2005                                                             (b) 1954               

(c) 1947                                                              (d) 1950

40. Who among the following is not the exponent of ‘Dualism Theory’ ?

(a) Triepel                                                               (b) Anzilloti 

(c) Oppenheim                                                       (d) Duguit

41. Which one of the following is 1st leading case decided by Supreme Court on delegated legislation after the Constitution came into force ?

(a) Re-Delhi Laws Act, 1912                                                   (b) Jatindra Nath Gupta V. Province of Bihar

(c) Kathi Raning Rawat V. State of Saurashtra                       (d) Raj Narayan Singh V. Patna Administration Committee

42. Which Article of the UN Charter relates to ‘Domestic Jurisdiction’ ?

(a) Article 23                                                        (b) Article 51 

(c) Article 2(7)                                                       (d) Article 72

43. International Finance Corporation (IFC) comprises of

(a) Board of Governors                                     (b) Board of Directors

(c) President and Staff                                       (d) All of the above

44. Uttarakhand Day or State Foundation Day is celebrated on

(a) November 10                                                    (b) November 09 

(c) November 11                                                     (d) November 12

45. As per Insurance (Amendment) Act, 2021 the FDI ceiling limit in the insurance sector has been

(a) Increased from 50% to 85%                                (b) Decreased from 85% to 54%

(c) Increased from 49% to 74%                                (d) Decreased from 49% to 34%

46. Appointment of retired High Court Judges at the sittings of High Courts is provided in Constitution of India, under :

(a) Article 224A                                                   (b) Article 224 

(c) Article 225                                                      (d) Article 223

47. Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, came into effect from which date ?

(a) 31 July, 2019                                                     (b) 19 August, 2018

(c) 22 August, 2019                                               (d) 19 September, 2018

48. Who was the first Woman Judge in the Supreme Court of India ?

(a) Indira Banerjee                                                        (b) Nagarathna

(c) Fatima Bibi                                                               (d) Indu Malhotra

49. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) Vs Union of India case was decided by how many judges ?

(a) 5 Judges                                                                  (b) 9 Judges

(c) 7 Judges                                                                   (d) 11 Judges

50. By which Constitution Amendment, Clause (k) to Article 51A was added ?

(a) The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002                                 (b) The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976

(c) The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992                                 (d) The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

51. Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the marriage of a minor is

(a) Valid                                                         (b) Void 

(c) Voidable                                                    (d) None of these

52. Which of the following grounds is available to a wife only to seek divorce under Section 13(2) of the ‘Hindu Marriage Act, 1955’ ?

(a) Apostacy                                                  (b) Desertion

(c) Leprosy                                                     (d) Committing of offence of unnatural intercourse by husband

53. Under Hindu Succession Act, 1956, if a Hindu male dies leaving behind more than one widow :

(a) All the widows together will get one share equal to that of other class I heirs.

(b) Each widow will get one share equal to that of other class I heirs.

(c) None of the widow will get any share.                                  (d) All the widows will be entitled only to maintenance.

54. Which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for registration of Hindu Marriages ?

(a) Section 7                                                             (b) Section 8 

(c) Section 10                                                           (d) Section 11

55. Under which Section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, customary divorce is saved ?

(a) Section 13-B                                                 (b) Section 16

(c) Section 30                                                     (d) Section 29(2)

56. Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, a child to be adopted should not have, in the absence of a valid custom, completed the age of

(a) 8 years                                                     (b) 10 years 

(c) 15 years                                                    (d) 12 years

57. Who is the natural guardian of a Hindu minor married girl under Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956 ?

(a) Husband                                       (b) Mother  

(c) Mother-in-law                               (d) Father

58. As per Hindu law, who among the following is not entitled for maintenance ?

(a) Divorced wife                                                             (b) Judicial separated wife

(c) A wife who has ceased to be Hindu                           (d) All of these

59. In the context of Hindu Succession Act, 1956, in which of the following case Supreme Court of India held that ‘daughters are of a life time’ and not just after 2005 ?

(a) Satya V Sushila                                                            (b) Vineeta Sharma V Rakesh Sharma

(c) Sulochana V Ram Kumar                                             (d) Pushpu V Archana

60. Status of Legitimacy in Hindu Law is recognized for

(a) Children of valid marriage                                              (b) Children of voidable marriage

(c) Children of void marriage                                               (d) All of these

61. Who is disentitled to dispose of property of a Hindu minor under Sec. 11 of The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 ?

(a) De facto Guardian                                                                          (b) De-Jure Guardian

(c) Father                                                                                              (d) Guardian appointed by Court

62. Under Sec. 21 of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956, word ‘dependent’ means :

(a) Father only                                                                                        (b) Mother only

(c) Widow, so long as she does not remarry                                          (d) All of these

63. The Dattaka Mimansa and Dattaka Chandrika are related to

(a) Joint family & Coparcenary                                               (b) Succession

(c) Adoption                                                                            (d) Guardianship

64. Russel V Russel is related to which of the following matter in ‘Hindu Law’ ?

(a) Desertion                                                                           (b) Cruelty 

(c) Adultery                                                                             (d) Leprosy

65. Which one of the following Section of The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides that proceedings shall be conducted in camera ?

(a) Section 22                                                                             (b) Section 21 

(c) Section 21 C                                                                           (d) Section 21 B

66. The Sunni Law does not recognise

(a) Sahi (Valid) Marriage                                                        (b) Muta (Temporary) Marriage

(c) Fasid (Irregular) Marriage                                                 (d) Batil (Void) Marriage

67. A Muslim male already having four wives, has contracted a fifth marriage. This fifth marriage is

(a) Valid                                                                                   (b) Voidable 

(c) Void                                                                                    (d) Irregular

68. According to Section 4 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, apostasy from Islam of a Muslim wife :

(a) will dissolve her marriage ipso facto                                                                     (b) will not dissolve her marriage ipso facto

(c) dissolves her marriage and she loses her claim on Mehar                                    (d) dissolves her marriage, but she does not lose her claim of Mehar

69. Which one of the following is not essential for a Valid Hiba (gift) under the Muslim Law ?

(a) Declaration of gift                                                                                                            (b) Acceptance of gift

(c) Delivery of possession of the property by the donor to the donee                                 (d) Written documentary proof of the gift

70. A Muslim female can perform a valid marriage with non-Muslim under

(a) Special Marriage Act, 1954                                            (b) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

(c) Muslim Law                                                                    (d) Christian Marriage Act, 1872

71. Which of the following is not a form of divorce under Muslim Law ?

(a) Hasan Talak                                                    (b) Talak-ul-bidda            

(c) Idda                                                                 (d) Khula

72. In which school of Muslim, Muta marriage is recognized ?

(a) Ithana Asharia School                                       (b) Hanafi School

(c) Zayd School                                                       (d) Ismaili School

73. Where there are one or more daughters, son’s daughters and there is no son or son’s son. The share of father in inheritance under Muslim Law would be

(a) 1/6 only                                                       (b) 1/6 + Residue

(c) Residue                                                        (d) Excluded from any right

74. Which one of the following is not the valid object of Waqf under Muslim Law ?

(a) Celebrating the birth of Ali Murtaza            (b) Grant to an Idgah

(c) Payment of money to Fakirs                         (d) A waqf in favour of utter strangers

75. The maximum shares of mother and widow under Sunni Law of inheritance may be

(a) 1and 14                                               (b) 1and 12

(c) 1and 14                                                (d) 1and 12

76. Who is natural guardian of the property of a minor under Muslim Law ?

(a) Brother                                                            (b) Mother

(c) Father                                                               (d) Uncle

77. A marriage with a Muslim woman undergoing iddat is

(a) Void                                                                   (b) Irregular 

(c) Valid                                                                   (d) None of these

78. Under Muslim Law when wife and husband seek divorce on mutual consent. It is called

(a) Mubarat                                                             (b) Talaq-e-Tafavid 

(c) Ila                                                                       (d) All of these

79. Which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with presumption as to powers of attorney ?

(a) Section 91                                                             (b) Section 88 

(c) Section 85                                                              (d) Section 70

80. How many Sections and Chapters are there in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(a) 160 Sections and 10 Chapters                                  (b) 180 Sections and 14 Chapters

(c) 172 Sections and 16 Chapters                                  (d) 167 Sections and 11 Chapters

81. Which one of the following is not defined under Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(a) Court                                                             (b) Confession  

(c) Evidence                                                        (d) Document

82. Under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, facts forming part of the same transaction are known as :

(a) Plea of alibi                                                   (b) Admission 

(c) Res Gestae                                                     (d) Dying declaration

83. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for ‘refreshing memory’ ?

(a) Section 159                                                (b) Section 158 

(c) Section 155                                                 (d) Section 160

84. Generally when ‘leading questions’ may be asked ?

(a) In any examination                                        (b) In cross-examination

(c) In examination-in-chief                                 (d) In re-examination

85. Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 protects from disclosing communication during marriage ?

(a) Section 125                                                   (b) Section 123 

(c) Section 124                                                    (d) Section 122

86. ‘A’ is charged with travelling on a railway without ticket. The burden of proof that he had a ticket will lie on

(a) Prosecution                                                     (b) Railway administration

(c) ‘A’ himself                                                        (d) Ticket examiner

87. Which of the following is not considered as an evidence under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?

(a) Oral Evidence                                                       (b) Hearsay Evidence

(c) Primary Evidence                                                  (d) Expert Evidence

88. The case of Palvinder Kaur V State of Punjab relates to which of the following ?

(a) Confession                                                              (b) Dying declaration

(c) Relevancy of Judgement                                         (d) Entries in the books of account

89. Which of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act deals with the ‘plea of alibi’ ?

(a) Section 10                                                                (b) Section 12 

(c) Section 13                                                                (d) Section 11

90. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Hostile Witness – Sec 154                                        (b) Impeaching Credit of Witness – Sec 155

(c) Professional Communication – Sec 124                    (d) Refreshing Memory – Sec 159

91. The Indian Evidence Act applies to

(a) Affidavits                                                                (b) Judicial proceedings

(c) Arbitration proceedings                                        (d) All of these

92. A witness who is unable to speak gives his evidence in writing in open court. Such type of evidence is known as

(a) Oral evidence                                                           (b) No evidence

(c) Secondary evidence                                                 (d) Primary evidence

93. In which case Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act was held by the Court to be Constitutionally valid ?

(a) Nathu V State of UP                                                 (b) Ram Bharose V State of UP

(c) Devman Upadhayaya V State of UP                         (d) Pakkala Narayan Swami V Emperor

94. Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecution for rape is provided under the Indian Evidence Act 1872 in

(a) Section 113A                                                       (b) Section 113B 

(c) Section 114                                                          (d) Section 114A

95. Section 118 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is related to

(a) Judges and Magistrates                                                                     (b) Who may testify

(c) Accomplice                                                                                         (d) Number of witnesses

96. Ranatish Saha Vs Smt. Soma Saha and another, AIR 2016 (NOC) 268 Cal, case is related to

(a) DNA Test                                                                                                   (b) Presumption as to dowry death                           

(c) Burden of proving fact especially within knowledge                                (d) Estoppel

97. A is accused before the Court of Session of attempting to murder a Police Officer whilst on his trial before B, a Session Judge. In this case, whether B may be examined ?

(a) B can not be examined                                                                    (b) B is protected by Sec 124 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(c) B may be examined as to what occurred                                         (d) None of the above

98. A, a client says to B, an attorney – “I have committed forgery and I wish you to defend me.” Whether this is protected under the professional communication ?

(a) It is not protected                                                    (b) This communication is a confession

(c) Proof of facts                                                           (d) Protected from disclosure

99. Which one of the following Section of the Indian Evidence Act provides about the production of documents or electronic records which another person, having possession, could refuse to produce ?

(a) Section 130                                                                (b) Section 131 

(c) Section 129                                                                 (d) Section 132

100. How many witnesses are required for the proof of any fact ?

(a) No particular number of witnesses required.                             (b) Two witnesses are required.

(c) Only one witness is required.                                                     (d) None of these

101. Judge’s power to put questions or order production is provided under the Indian Evidence Act 1872 in

(a) Section 162                                                                                      (b) Section 163 

(c) Section 161                                                                                       (d) Section 165

102. Classification of offences are given in Criminal Procedure Code under :

(a) Section 406                                                                                               (b) Second Schedule 

(c) First Schedule                                                                                            (d) Section 482

103. Under Section 167 of the CrPC the Magistrate can authorize detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation in case of offences punishable;

(a) with death                                                                                                   (b) with imprisonment for life

(c) with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years                                 (d) All of these

104. The term ‘victim’ is defined in Criminal Procedure Code under :

(a) Section 2(w)                                                                (b) Section 2(wa) 

(c) Section 2(v)                                                                  (d) None of these

105. Under which Section of CrPC 1973, there is a provision regarding recording of remarks by magistrate respecting demeanour of witness ?

(a) Section 280                                                                  (b) Section 288 

(c) Section 278                                                                   (d) Section 270

106. Under Section 482 of CrPC inherent power may be exercised by :

(a) Supreme Court only                                                          (b) High Court only

(c) Session Court only                                                            (d) Any Criminal Court

107. Which one of the following irregularities does not vitiate proceeding under Section 460 of the CrPC ?

(a) Demand Security to keep peace                                         (b) To make an order for maintenance

(c) To issue a search warrant under Sec 94 CrPC                      (d) Discharge a person lawfully bound to be of good behaviour

108. A case can be committed to the Court of Session by a Magistrate under CrPC :

(a) Section 290 and 323                                                               (b) Section 209 and 323

(c) Section 208 and 323                                                               (d) Section 209 and 325

109. What is the meaning of Police Diary under CrPC ?

(a) Proceeding in investigation under Sec 172                      (b) Information recorded under Sec 168

(c) Proceeding recorded under Sec 154                                (d) Statement recorded under Sec 161

110. Chapter XXI A related to Plea Bargaining under CrPC was inserted in which year ?

(a) 2000                                                                         (b) 2002                                                        

 (c) 2009                                                                         (d) 2006

111. According to Section 357A of the CrPC, where the offender is not traced or identified, the victim or his dependent applied for the award of compensation, within what period, the state or district legal services authorities are required to complete enquiry in this regard ?

(a) One Month                                                          (b) Three Months 

(c) Two Months                                                          (d) Four Months

112. Which one of the following Section of the CrPC has created a duty on part of the public generally to give information to the police regarding certain offences ?

(a) Section 37                                                               (b) Section 39  

(c) Section 38                                                               (d) Section 40

113. Under Sec 58 of CrPC, to whom officer incharge of the police station shall report the cases of all persons arrested without warrant ?

(a) District Magistrate                                                   (b) Session Judge

(c) Public Prosecutor                                                    (d) Superintendent of Police

114. Which one of the following Sections of the CrPC relate to the summary procedure for trial for giving false evidence ?

(a) Section 342                                                         (b) Section 345 

(c) Section 344                                                          (d) Section 343

115. According to Section 144 of CrPC, what is the maximum period for which state government has power to further extend the order made by the Magistrate ?

(a) Not exceeding 3 months                                             (b) Not exceeding 4 months

(c) Not exceeding 1 year                                                    (d) Not exceeding 6 months

116. Which one of the following Section of CrPC provides the release of person of unsound mind on bail pending investigation or trial ?

(a) Section 328                                                              (b) Section 330 

(c) Section 329                                                               (d) Section 331

117. Which of the following Section of the CrPC deals with, how appeal to Court of Session is heard ?

(a) Section 381                                                                (b) Section 380  

(c) Section 300                                                                (d) Section 307

118. What is the maximum period for security for keeping the peace can be asked for, under Section 107 of CrPC ?

(a) Three years                                                                  (b) Two years 

(c) One year                                                                      (d) Seven years

119. Which one of the following Section of CrPC deals with the summary dismissal of Appeal ?

(a) Section 320                                                                 (b) Section 390  

(c) Section 381                                                                  (d) Section 384

120. Which one of the following Section of the CrPC deals with the powers of the Appellate Court ?

(a) Section 290                                                                    (b) Section 386 

(c) Section 300                                                                     (d) Section 395

121. Under CrPC, which of the following courts are shown as criminal court ?

(a) The High Court                                                                             (b) Court of Session

(c) Judicial Magistrate First Class                                                       (d) All of these

122. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 does not have provision regarding

(a) Review                                                                                               (b) Revision

(c) Reference                                                                                            (d) Appeal

123. Section 407 of the CrPC, 1973 deals with

(a) Power of Supreme Court to transfer cases and appeal                               (b) Power of Session Court to transfer cases and appeal

(c) Power of High Court to transfer cases and appeal                                      (d) All of these

124. Reports of certain government scientific experts is prescribed in CrPC under

(a) Section 292                                                           (b) Section 293 

(c) Section 291                                                            (d) Section 294

125. Offence of same kind committed, by a person accused of more than one offences within the space of twelve months, whether in respect of the same person or not, may be charged with and tried at one trial under CrPC, for how many offences ?

(a) Two                                                                      (b) Five 

(c) Four                                                                      (d) Three

126. ‘A’ has knocked down two teeth of ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(a) Grievous hurt                                                             (b) Hurt

(c) Culpable homicide                                                      (d) Attempt to hurt

127. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’ who refuses to do so, ‘A’ is guilty of

(a) No offence                                                               (b) Criminal Conspiracy

(c) Abetment to commit murder                                  (d) Criminal Instigation

128. Definition of Criminal Conspiracy is given in the IPC, under

(a) Chapter VA                                                             (b) Chapter VI 

(c) Chapter VII                                                              (d) Chapter X

129. When the right of private defence of property does not extends to causing death ?

(a) House-breaking by night                                         (b) Mischief or house trespass

(c) Robbery                                                                    (d) Theft as reasonably caused apprehension of death if right of private defence not exercised.

130. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, when the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death

(a) Apprehension of death                                                                   (b) Kidnapping

(c) Acid attack                                                                                       (d) All of these

131. ‘A’ joins an insurrection against the Government of India. ‘A’ has committed the offence of :

(a) Criminal Conspiracy                                                                               (b) Sedition

(c) Waging of war against the Government of India                                  (d) Criminal Breach of Trust

132. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, is based on the principles  of ‘dole incapax’ ?

(a) Section 82                                                                   (b) Section 81 

(c) Section 84                                                                    (d) Section 87

133. Disclosure of identity of victim of rape is punishable in Indian Penal Code under Section :

(a) Section 228                                                                  (b) Section 228A  

(c) Section 229                                                                   (d) Section 229A

134. Which of the following is not a correct match ? Offence – Section of IPC

(a) Extortion – Section 383                                                 (b) Dacoity – Section 391

(c) Robbery – Section 389                                                   (d) Theft – Section 378

135. A hangman who hangs the prisoner in pursuant to the order of the Court is exempted from criminal liability by virtue of which Section of IPC ?

(a) Section 77                                                                     (b) Section 76 

(c) Section 79                                                                      (d) Section 78

136. ‘A’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ without ‘Z’s consent with the intention to annoy ‘Z’, Here ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(a) Criminal force                                                                             (b) Grievous hurt

(c) Criminal assault                                                                          (d) Defamation

137. ‘A’ causes ‘Z’ to go within a walled space and locks ‘Z’ in. ‘A’ shall be guilty of

(a) Assault                                                                                 (b) Wrongful confinement

(c) Wrongful restraint                                                               (d) None of these

138. ‘A’ a Zamindar tortures a raiyat in order to compel him to pay his rent, ‘A’ is guilty of an offence in IPC under :

(a) Section 329                                                                             (b) Section 333 

(c) Section 330                                                                              (d) Section 331

139. ‘A’ denied food to his wife ‘B’ for several days by keeping her confined in a room with intention to accelerate her death, ‘B’ any how managed to escape. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?

(a) Wrongful confinement                                                              (b) Mental torture

(c) Causing grievous hurt                                                                (d) Attempt to murder

140. The offence of theft is punishable in IPC under :

(a) Section 378                                                                                (b) Section 379 

(c) Section 380                                                                               (d) Section 381

141. Under Indian Penal Code stalking as an offence has been added by

(a) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013                                                   (b) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005

(c) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2015                                                   (d) Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1955

142. Which of the following doesn’t fall under grievous hurt ?

(a) Fracture of bone                                                                                     (b) Emasculation

(c) Temporary privation of the sight of either eye                                      (d) Hurt which causes severe bodily pain to the sufferer for atleast 20 days.

143. Abetment of suicide has been defined under which Section of IPC ?

(a) Section 309                                                                    (b) Section 306 

(c) Section 305                                                                     (d) Section 308

144. Punishment for Dowry death under Section 304-B of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is

(a) Life imprisonment                                                          (b) Imprisonment upto seven years only

(c) Imprisonment upto ten years                                        (d) Not less than seven years but which may extend to imprisonment for life.

145. Match the following :

A. Rioting 1. 511                                                                 B. Affray 2. 146

C. Abetment 3. 107                                                            D. Attempt to commit offence 4. 159

(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3                                                            (b) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

(c) A-2; B-4; C-3; D-1                                                              (d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3

146. Criminal Conspiracy is defined in Indian Penal Code, 1860 under

(a) Section 120A                                                                    (b) Section 107 

(c) Section 120                                                                       (d) Section 120B

147. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to instigate ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’. ‘B’ accordingly instigates ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’ and thereby ‘C’ commits the offence on such instigation. Who shall be guilty for committing the offence of murder ?

(a) Only ‘C’                                                            (b) Only ‘B’ and ‘C’

(c) Only ‘A’                                                            (d) All ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’

148. Which one of the following is essential ingredient for the offence of theft under Section of 378 of IPC ?

(a) Fraudulently                                                        (b) Dishonestly

(c) Without good faith                                             (d) Maliciously

149. How many types of punishments have been mentioned under Section 53 of Indian Penal Code, 1860 ?

(a) Six                                                                     (b) Four

(c) Five                                                                   (d) Seven

150. The punishment for ‘Gang Rape’ as provided under Section 376D of Indian Penal Code, 1860 is :

(a) Rigorous imprisonment which will be not less than 20 years but it may be extended upto life imprisonment.                          

(b) Death sentence

(c) Life imprisonment only                      

(d) Rigorous imprisonment which will be not less than 10 years but it may extended upto life imprisonment.

151. In which one of the following cases Section 303 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was declared unconstitutional ?

(a) R Vs Govinda                                                                             (b) D.K. Sharma Vs State of MP

(c) Bhagwan Bax Singh Vs State of UP                                           (d) Mithu Vs State of Punjab

152. ‘A’ offers bribe to ‘B’ who is a public servant. ‘B’ refuses to accept the bribe. ‘A’ is punishable in IPC under :

(a) Section 114                                                        (b) Section 116 

(c) Section 110                                                         (d) Section 109

153. Provision relating to harbouring deserter has been prescribed under Indian Penal Code in

(a) Section 131                                                        (b) Section 135 

(c) Section 136                                                         (d) Section 137

154. ‘A’ puts jewels into a box belonging to ‘Z’, with the intention that they may be found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause ‘Z’ to be committed of theft. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

(a) Fabricated false evidence                                       (b) Theft

(c) Threat to injury to public servant                          (d) None of these

155. Negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life is prescribed in IPC under :

(a) Section 268                                                     (b) Section 271 

(c) Section 270                                                     (d) Section 269

156. ‘Life’ is defined in Indian Penal Code under :

(a) Section 44                                                          (b) Section 45 

(c) Section 48                                                           (d) Section 50

157. Section 41 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes definition of

(a) Special Law                                                       (b) Local Law 

(c) Injury                                                                 (d) Harbour

158. What is a cheque upon a banker under the Indian Penal Code ?

(a) Document                                                             (b) Counterfeit 

(c) Valuable security                                                    (d) None of these

159. Section 22 of the Indian Penal Code prescribes

(a) Wrongful gain                                                              (b) Wrongful loss

 (c) Dishonesty                                                                   (d) Movable property

160. ‘Court of Justice’ is defined in Indian Penal Code under :

(a) Section 19                                                                    (b) Section 21 

(c) Section 20                                                                     (d) Section 22

161. ‘A’ by pleading as diamonds articles which he knows are not diamonds, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thereby dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to lend money. What offence has been committed by ‘A’ under Indian Penal Code ?

(a) Theft                                                                                                                  (b) Cheating

(c) Criminal misappropriation of property                                                              (d) Criminal Breach of Trust

162. Section 489A of the Indian Penal Code is related to

(a) Making false mark upon any receptacle containing goods                                   (b) Property mark

(c) Mischief                                                                                                                   (d) Counterfeiting currency notes or bank notes

163. ‘A’ makes an attempt to pick the pocket of ‘Z’ by thrusting his hands into ‘Z’s pockets. ‘A’ fails in the attempt in consequence of ‘Z’s having nothing in his pocket. ‘A’ is guilty of

(a) Attempt to commit theft                                    (b) Attempt to commit tresspass

(c) Theft in dwelling house                                       (d) None of these

164. Representative suit is dealt in CPC under :

(a) Order 1 Rule 6                                                   (b) Order 1 Rule 7

(c) Order 1 Rule 8                                                    (d) Order 1 Rule 9

165. Rule of Set-off under CPC is dealt with under

(a) Order 7 Rule 6                             (b) Order 8 Rule 6

(c) Order 7 Rule 7                              (d) Order 8 Rule 7

166. Pleading means

(i) Plaint                                    (ii) Written statement

(iii) Documentary evidence       (iv) Statement of witness

Choose the correct option :

(a) (i) and (ii)                                                               (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)                                                       (d) None of the above

167. Defendant may apply for setting aside ex-parte decree under the Civil Procedure Code :

(a) Order 7 Rule 13                                                      (b) Order 9 Rule 13

(c) Order 8 Rule 13                                                      (d) Order 11 Rule 13

168. Res Judicata bars :

(a) Filing of Appeal                                               (b) Continuation of Suit

(c) Execution Proceedings                                    (d) Institution of Suit

169. Which of the following Section of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 defines “Judge” ?

(a) Section 2(8)                                                  (b) Section 2(4) 

(c) Section 2(6)                                                   (d) Section 2(12)

170. Which of the following under Civil Procedure Code is the duty of Appellate Court ?

(a) Duty to appreciate evidence                                                                  (b) Duty to decide appeal finally

(c) Duty to re-appreciate evidence                                                             (d) All of these

171. Under Civil Procedure Code the Court may issue a Commission :

(a) To examine any person                                                                  (b) To make local investigation

(c) To make a partition                                                                         (d) All of these

172. Meaning of Garnishee under Civil Procedure Code :

(a) Creditor’s debtor                                                                         (b) Debtor’s debtor

(c) Judgement debtor’s debtor                                                        (d) None of the above

173. In Civil Procedure Code the appointment of ‘Receiver’ has been dealt with

(a) Under Order XLIV                                                                            (b) Under Order XL

(c) Under Order XLII                                                                             (d) Under Order XLV

174. The provision for substituted service of summons on defendant(s) has been made under :

(a) Order V Rule 20 of CPC                                                               (b) Order V Rule 19A of CPC

(c) Order V Rule 19 of CPC                                                                (d) Order V Rule 21 of CPC

175. Which one of the following is based upon doctrine of equity ?

(a) Res Judicata                                                             (b) Res Sub judice

(c) Suit for Civil Nature                                                 (d) Estoppel

176. Principle of Res-Judicata is :

(a) Mandatory                                                                         (b) Directory 

(c) Discretionary                                                                      (d) Optional

177. By whom a decree can be executed ?

(a) By Collector                                                                                                                                           (b) By District Judge

(c) The Court passed decree or by court to whom it has been transferred                                                (d) By Tehsildar

178. A decree may be

(a) Preliminary                                                                                   (b) Final

(c) Partly preliminary and partly final                                                 (d) All of the above

179. A suit regarding immovable property may be instituted in a court in whose jurisdiction :

(a) Defendant resides                                                                                (b) Property is situated

(c) Defendant carries business                                                                  (d) All of these

180. Production of Shop-book is prescribed in Civil Procedure Code under :

(a) Order VII Rule 17                                                                        (b) Order VII Rule 11

(c) Order VII Rule 10                                                                        (d) Order VII Rule 12

181. Order VIII Rule 1 of the Civil Procedure Code is related to

(a) Denial to be specific                                                         (b) Written statement

(c) Evasive denial                                                                    (d) New ground of defence

182. Under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ‘Immovable Property’ does not include :

(a) Standing Timber                                                    (b) Land

(c) Building                                                                  (d) Machinery, permanently attached to earth

183. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals with

(a) Fraudulent transfer                                                          (b) Lis pendens

(c) Ostensible owner                                                            (d) Part performance

184. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 came into force on

(a) 17th February, 1882                                                       (b) 17th March, 1882

(c) 1st June, 1882                                                                 (d) 1st July, 1882

185. Direction for accumulation of income from transfer of property is valid till :

(i) Life of the transferor

(ii) Life of the transferee

(iii) Eighteen years from the date of transfer

(iv) Twenty years from the date of transfer

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)                                                                         (b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)                                                                             (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

186. If the done dies before acceptance of the gift, the gift is

(a) Valid                                                                                  (b) Void 

(c) Voidable                                                                            (d) None of these

187. Which of the following instruments have been excluded by application of Section 137 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?

(a) Shares only                                                                    (b) Bills of Exchange only

(c) Both (a) & (b)                                                                 (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

188. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, Vested interest is :

(a) Defeated by the death of the transferor                       (b) Defeated by the death of the transferee

(c) Both (a) and (b)                                                              (d) None of these

189. Which one of the following is included in immovable property ?

(a) Trees and shrubs rooted in earth                                 (b) Growing crops

(c) Grass                                                                             (d) Standing timber

190. A lets a farm to B on condition that he shall walk a hundred miles in an hour. The lease is

(a) Valid                                                                         (b) Voidable 

(c) Void                                                                          (d) None of these

191. What property may not be transferred under Section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act ?

(a) Stipends allowed to military                                                                                             (b) A right to future maintenance

(c) The chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate.                                               (d) All of these

192. Transfer of property for the benefit of an unborn person made directly is

(a) Valid                                                                              (b) Void

(c) Voidable                                                                        (d) A good and a for sighted move

193. Which is not an actionable claim ?

(a) Mesne profits                                                                   (b) Right to claim insured amount from LIC

(c) Sum of arrear payable in future                                        (d) Right to take share or accounts of a dissolved firm

194. Section 63 of the Transfer of Property Act is related to

(a) Right to inspection and production of documents             (b) Redemption of portion of mortgaged property

(c) Accession to mortgaged property                                      (d) Right of mortgagor to redeem

195. Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 talks about restitution of conjugal rights ?

(a) Section 8                                                                 (b) Section 10 

(c) Section 11                                                                 (d) Section 9

196. Who amongst the following is not ‘Hindu’ within the meaning of Section 2 of ‘Hindu Marriage Act, 1955’ ?

(a) Buddhist                                                                        (b) Parsi 

(c) Jain                                                                                 (d) Sikh

197. Under Section 13 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956, what is the paramount consideration in the appointment or declaring a guardian of a ‘Hindu’ Minor ?

(a) Property of minor                                                      (b) Property of guardian

(c) Welfare of minor                                                       (d) Education of minor

198. The author of ‘Dayabhaga’ was

(a) Jimutavahana                                                                                      (b) Vijnaneshwara

(c) Vashishtha                                                                                            (d) Narada

199. ‘Mitakshara’ is a commentary on

(a) Manusmriti                                                                                         (b) Parashara Smriti

(c) Narad Smriti                                                                                       (d) Yajnavalkya Smriti

200. Pregnancy of a girl at the time of her marriage under the ‘Hindu Marriage Act, 1955’ :

(a) will not effect the marriage                                                                                (b) will be a ground for making the marriage as voidable

(c) will be a ground for making the marriage as void                                            (d) will make the marriage ipso facto invalid