Jharkhand 2018 mains PY

JHARKHAND JUDICIAL SERVICE PREVIOUS PAPER

Preliminary Exam, – 2019

1. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrasal verb in the following sentence: “His evidence beans out the testimony of the accused.”

(a) Corroborates (b) Falsifies

2. Choose the correct spelling.

(a) Enciclopaedia (b) Encyclopaedia

3. Which word is a personification in this sentence? “Death lays its icy hands on Kings and Paupers alike.”

(a) Hands (c) Death

(b) Kings (d) Paupers

4. Choose the word closest in meaning to the underlined word in the sentence: “I sat next to a distinguished writer.”

(a) Different (b) Eminent

5. Choose the correct indirect form of the following sentence: He said to me, “Let us have some tea.”

(a) He said me to have some tea. (b) He proposed to me that we should have some tea.

6. Choose the tense form of the following sentence “The patient had died when the doctor arrived.”

(a) past Tense (b) Present Perfect Tense
(c) Past Perfect Tense (d) Past Perfect Continuous Tense

7. Orthopedics is the branch of medicine concerned with
(a) the study of human skin (b) the study of human nervous system
(c) the study of human bones and muscles (d) the study of eyes and ears.

8. The word most opposite in meaning to the word “amateur” is.
(a) Professional (b) clumsy
(c) unskilled (d) talented

9. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined word in the following sentence: “Trespassers will be
(a) Harassed (b) Punished unjustly
(c) Legal action will be taken against them (d) Oppressed

10. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined idiomatic phrase is the following sentence: “He was sent off on a wild goose chase to look for buried treasure.”
(a) Foolish unprofitable venture (b) Profitable adventure
(c) Bird hunting (d) Treasure hunting

11. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined phrasal verb in the following sentence : “His evidence beans out the testimony of the accused.”
(a) Corroborates (b) Falsifies
(c) Does not support (d) Contradicts

12.Which one of the following is a “Tiger Reserve’ of Jharkhand?
(a) Betla (b) Hazaribagh
(c) Palamu (d) Dalma

13. Which on of the following classical dance forms is mainly associated with Andhra Pradesh ?
(a) Bharatnatyam (b) Kathakali
(c) Kuchpudi (d) Mohiniyattam

14. Under GST taxation framework, CGST means.
(a) Customs Goods and Services Tax (b) Central Goods and Services Tax
(c) Combined Goods and Service Tax (d) None of the above.

15. Which of the following is a National Monument of India?
(a) Red Fort (b) India Gate
(c) Rashtrapati Bhawan (d) Qutub Minar
(e) All the above

16. Which one of the following Indian cities is known by the nickname of ‘Deccan Queen”?
(a) Bengaluru (b) Pune
(c) Hyderabad (d) Chennai

17. Who among the following is the first woman Chief Minister in post Independence period in India?
(a) Nandini Sapathy (b) Shasikala Kadokar
(c) Sucheta Kriplani (d) Syeda Anwara Taimput

18. Who among the following is the first Chief Election Commissioner of post Independence India?

(a) K.VK. Sundaram (b) Sukumar Sen

19. Which of the following is/are the official language(s) of the International Court of Justice (ICJ) at the Hague?

(a) English and Dutch (b) English and German

20. ‘International Yoga Day’ is celebrated on

(a) 5th June (b) 8th March

21.A deposits a box of gold coins with B as his agent. He then writes to C for the purpose of making the gold coins security for a debt due from himself to C. A afterwards alleges that ‘C’s debt is satisfied and C alleges the contrary. Both claim the gold coins from B. B may institute an in pleader suit against.
(a) A (b) A
(c) None (d) A and C

22. A foreign judgement.
(a) can never be conclusive.

(b) can be conclusive as to any matter indirectly adjudicated upon between the same parties.

(c) Can be conclusive as to any matter directly adjudicated upon between the same parties if it has not been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction.

(d) can be conclusive as to any matter directly adjudicated upon between the same parties if it been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction.

23. A. a bank officer. go compulsorily retired in 2014. Since the bank authorities did not release the leave encashment in his favor, he filed writ petition WP 2001 (W) of 2017 in Ranchi High Court for the same and also for the interest on the unpaid amount. The writ petition was disposed of by a learned Single Judge in December. 2018 directing the bank release the privileged leave encashment benefits to the petitioner to the extent he was
entitled to accordance with law within a certain period. The prayer for interest was not specifically denied by the court. The bank filed an appeal against the order. The Division Bench of Ranchi High Court in February .2018 declined to admit the appeal. However, A files a writ petition again for direction to the bank to disburse interest to A at the rate of 18% per annum on leave encashment released by the bank. The petition is covered under which of the following?
(a) Section 11. CPC (b) Seciton 11. Expl. 5. CPC.
(c) Section 11. Expl. 4. CPC (d) Order 2, Rule 2. CPC.

24. On the reversal of decree, which Section imposes on obligation on the party to the suit who received an unjust benefit of the erroneous decree to make restitution to the other party for what he has lost?

(a) Section 141. CPC. (b) Section 142. CPC.

25. Interveners are.

(a) entitled to be impleaded (b) not entitled to be impleaded

26.Suit for recovery of money in promissory notes can be filed.
(a) under normal procedure (b) under summary procedure as laid down in Order 37, CPC.
(c) in the High Court (d) as a writ petition

27. Inherent powers of the Civil Court are exercised.

(a) to make such orders as may for the ends of justice. (b) to make such orders as may neccessary to prevent abuse of the process of the court
(c) Both (A) & (B) (d) None of the above.

28.In the case of public nuisance, a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by

(a) two persons with the leave of the court

(b) two persons having obtained oral consent of the Advocate General.

(d) two persons to whom no special damage has been caused by persons of such public nuisance.

29. Section 20 of CPC does not apply to

(a) arbitration proceedings (b) Civil proceedings

30. Pleading’ can be altered or amended

(a) under Order VI, Rule 9, CPC. (b) under Order VI. Rule 10, CPC.

31.A defendant can pray to the court for rejection of a plaint

(a) If the stamp writing is not clear. (b) if it is barred by another enactment of the Parliament

32. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided according to

(a) Section 17. CPC (b) Section 18. CPC

33. In the execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of

(a) 1/4th (b) 1/3rd

34. A foreign government.

(a) cannot be sued don

(b) can be sued without any restriction on the powers of civil courts

(d) can be sued with the condition that the certificate of consent is issued by the secretary to the Central Government in huge writing.

35. Which of the following is not sufficient cause for granting adjournment ?

(a) Sickness of a party, his witness or his counsel (b) Non-examination of a witness present in the court

36.The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 was last amended on

(a) 1 August, 2018 (b) 6 August, 2018

37. The Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 contains.

(a) 451 Sections (b) 461 Sections

38. The First Information Report can be quashed by the High Court on the ground of

(a) Parties having arrived at the settlement and no heinous offence was committed according to the charge-sheet.

(b) parties having arrived at the Settlement and heinous offence was committed according to the charge-sheet

(d) without any ground.

39.A Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under

(a) Section 204. CrPC (b) Section 205. CrPC

40. If the evidence is available about a person who appears to have committed an offence but his name is not mentioned in the charge-sheet as accused.

(a) his name can be added by the Judicial Magistrate/Sessions (b) his name cannot be added at this stage

41. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) A police officer has the power to require attendance of witnesses under the age of 15 years before himself .
(b) A police officer has the power to require attendance of a woman witness before himself .
(c) A police officer has the power to require 65 year before himself.
(d) A police officer does not have the power to require attendance of witnesses who are mentally challenged before himself.

42. When the inquiry or trial relates to an offence committed under Section 376. CrPC, the inquiry or trial shall be concluded within a period of
(a) 4 weeks after the filing of charge-sheet (b) 8 weeks after the filing of charge-sheet
(c) 2 months after the filing of charge-sheet m (d) 4 months after the filing of charge-sheet

43. Rule autrefois acquit or autrefois convict is contained in.
(a) Section 298. CrPC (b) Section 300. CrPC
(c) Section 320. CrPC (d) Section 321. CrPC

44. Every person is under an obligation to give information about the commission of the offence to the nearest Magistrate of police officer.
(a) Offences in Section 115-120 (b) Offences in Section 121-126
(c) Offences in Section 127-132 (d) Offences in Section 132-140

45. Which section of the CrPC involves the reciprocal arrangement to be made by the Central Government with the foreign government through a treaty with regard to the service summons/ warrants/judicial process?
(a) Section 100 (b) Section 103
(c) Section 105A (d) Section 104A

46.A woman can claim maintenance from her husband.

(a) if she lives in adultery (b) if she refuses to live with her husband
(c) if she lives separately by mutual consent (d) if she is neglected

47. A Magistrate can
(a) ignore the conclusion reached at by the investigating officer (IO) and apply his mind independently.
(b) not ignore the conclusions reached at by the IO and apply his mind independently
(c) ignore the conclusion reached at by IO A and apply his mind independently only E upon statements of witnesses recorded by the police in case diary and material collected during investigation.
(d) not ignore the conclusion reached by the IO under any circumstances.

48.A statements made by any person to a police officer in the course of an investigation
(a) cannot be used for any purpose (b) can be used in favor of that person
(c) can be used against that person (d) cannot be used for any purpose except for the purpose of contradicting witness.

49. When the court of session passes a sentence of death, then
(a) the proceedings are submitted to the High Court and death sentence is executed.
(b) the proceedings are submitted to the High bums Court and death sentence is executed the only after the confirmation by the High anal Court.
(c) the proceedings are not needed to be submitted to the High Court
(d) it exceeds its powers.

50. Anticipatory bail is granted by the High Court or Court of Session.
(a) in anticipation of arrest in non-bailable cases. (b) in anticipation of arrest in bailable cases
(c) by passing the regular court which had try the offender (d) in ordinary circumstances

52.Opinion of handwriting expert under the law of evidence in India is:

(a) not relevant (b) relevant and is sole determinant of genuineness of document

53. Under Section 90 of Indian Evidence Act regarding presumption as to old documents 30 years old, the relevant date of computation of that document court is.

(a) date of production of document in court (b) date of initiation of proceedings in which document is produced

54. Tape-recorded conversation is admissible in evidence if.

(a) conversation is very important (b) conversation can save the culprit

(d) conversation is relevant to the matters is issue and the voice is identified.

55. The evidence relating to conspiracy is

(a) common motive of the conspirators and any act done in pursuance of it

(b) common intention of the conspirators and anything in writing in pursuance of it

(c) common intention of the conspirators and anything said, done, written by any of them in furtherance of that intention.

(d) common motive of the conspirators and the statement of a witness.

56.Test Identification Parade is

(a) substantive evidence (b) corroborative evidence

57. The presumption under Section 114A. Indian Evidence Act, is a/an

(a) rebuttable presumption (b) presumption of fact

58.Which Section of the Indian Evidence Act deal with the proof of customary
practices

(a) Sections 34, 46 and 47 (b) Sections 33, 45 and 48

59.The Court shall not take judicial notice of

(a) geographical divisions of the world

(b) public festivals notified in the official gazette

(d) an officer’s signature whose appointment is not notified in an official gazette

60.The contents of a document may be proved.

(a) by primary evidence only (b) by secondary evidence only.

61.A agrees in writing to sell a horse to B for ” Rs. 1000 or Rs. 1500″.

(a) Evidence cannot be given to show which price was to be paid for sale (b) Evidence can be given to show which price was paid for sale
(c) Evidence cannot be given to show the average of the sale prices. (d) Evidence can be given to show the average of the sale prices.
62. A public officer
(a) cannot be compelled to disclose communication made to him in official confidence if he does not consider that the public interests would suffer by the disclosure.
(b) cannot be compelled to disclose communications made to his officially if he
considers that the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.
(c) can be compelled to disclose communications made to him officially he does not
consider that the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.
(d) can be compelled to disclose communications made to him officially is he
considers that the public interest would suffer by the disclosure.
63.An accomplice
(a) is not a competent witness against an accused person
(b) is a competent witness against accused person
(c) must be corroborated in that case
(d) must be prosecuted